PAR exam guide

Overview

• FAA PRIVATE PILOT AIRPLANE KNOWLEDGE TEST (PAR) — VERIFIED SPECIFICATION
• •Research date: 2026-09-13. Every fact below was taken from a page fetched on that date; the URL is listed in SOURCES.

Exam Structure

• •Test code: PAR
• •Official test name: "Private Pilot Airplane" (FAA Airman Knowledge Testing Matrix, October 22, 2025, page 13)
• •Scored questions: 60
• •Unscored validation questions: 5 additional, administered inside the same session (PSI Private Pilot Airplane Applicant Information Bulletin, March 2024). The Testing Matrix confirms the listed "NUMBER OF QUESTIONS" excludes validation questions and the "ALLOTTED TIME" includes time to answer them.
• •Total questions presented: 65 (60 scored + 5 validation)
• •Time allowed: 2.0 hours = 120 minutes (Testing Matrix, Oct 22 2025; PSI bulletin states "120 Minutes")
• •Passing score: 70 (70% correct)
• •Minimum age to take the test: 15 (Testing Matrix PAR row)
• •Question format: multiple choice, three answer choices (A, B, C), one best answer. Verified from the FAA PAR sample-question document (every item has exactly choices A/B/C) and FAA-G-ACS-2: "The airman knowledge test consists of multiple-choice questions. A single correct response exists for each test question. A correct response to one question does not depend upon, or influence, the correct response to another."
• •Delivery: computer-based at PSI (Talogy) FAA-approved test centers; PSI is the FAA's contracted knowledge-testing vendor.
• •CONFLICT NOTE — allotted time: FAA-S-ACS-6C, Appendix 1 "Private Pilot Airplane Knowledge Test Table" still prints 2.5 hours. The FAA published a correction sheet, "ACS Knowledge Test Table: Correct Allotted Times" (updated October 2024), stating the ACS times are incorrect and that PAR is 2.0 hours effective 4/24/23. Trust 2.0 hours: it is confirmed by the current Testing Matrix (Oct 22, 2025), the FAA correction sheet, and the PSI applicant bulletin. The 2.5-hour figure is obsolete (it was the pre-April 24, 2023 value).
• SUBJECT AREAS REQUIRED BY 14 CFR 61.105(b) — VERBATIM FROM eCFR
• •§ 61.105 Aeronautical knowledge.
• •(a) General. A person who is applying for a private pilot certificate must receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor or complete a home-study course on the aeronautical knowledge areas of paragraph (b) of this section that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.
• •(b) Aeronautical knowledge areas. (1) Applicable Federal Aviation Regulations of this chapter that relate to private pilot privileges, limitations, and flight operations;
• •(2) Accident reporting requirements of the National Transportation Safety Board;
• •(3) Use of the applicable portions of the "Aeronautical Information Manual" and FAA advisory circulars;
• •(4) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage, dead reckoning, and navigation systems;
• •(5) Radio communication procedures;
• •(6) Recognition of critical weather situations from the ground and in flight, windshear avoidance, and the procurement and use of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts;
• •(7) Safe and efficient operation of aircraft, including collision avoidance, and recognition and avoidance of wake turbulence;
• •(8) Effects of density altitude on takeoff and climb performance;
• •(9) Weight and balance computations;
• •(10) Principles of aerodynamics, powerplants, and aircraft systems;
• •(11) Stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery techniques for the airplane and glider category ratings;
• •(12) Aeronautical decision making and judgment; and
• •(13) Preflight action that includes—
• •(i) How to obtain information on runway lengths at airports of intended use, data on takeoff and landing distances, weather reports and forecasts, and fuel requirements; and
• •(ii) How to plan for alternatives if the planned flight cannot be completed or delays are encountered.
• •Source citation line in eCFR: [Docket 25910, 62 FR 16298, Apr. 4, 1997; Amdt. 61-103, 62 FR 40902, July 30, 1997] (text current as of the eCFR point-in-time snapshot fetched 2026-09-13)

Airman Certification Standards (A)cs)

• •Current document: FAA-S-ACS-6C, "Private Pilot for Airplane Category Airman Certification Standards"
• •Cover date printed on the PDF: November 2023
• •FAA ACS webpage listing: Publication Date "April 2024", Status "Effective May 31, 2024"
• •Legal effective date: May 31, 2024 — the Federal Register final rule "Airman Certification Standards and Practical Test Standards for Airmen; Incorporation by Reference" (89 FR, published April 1, 2024, doc 2024-06644) is effective May 31, 2024 and incorporates by reference "FAA-S-ACS-6C, Private Pilot for Airplane Category ACS, November 2023" into 14 CFR part 61 (new § 61.14).
• •CONFLICT NOTE: November 2023 (PDF cover / IBR citation) vs April 2024 (FAA webpage publication column). Both refer to the same document. Cite it as "FAA-S-ACS-6C (November 2023), effective May 31, 2024."
• •Supersedes: FAA-S-ACS-6B (Change 1). Non-regulatory material moved to FAA-G-ACS-2, ACS Companion Guide for Pilots (November 2023, with Changes 1 & 2, December 2024).
• •Areas of Operation (align with 14 CFR 61.107(b)):
• •I. Preflight Preparation — Tasks A Pilot Qualifications, B Airworthiness Requirements, C Weather Information, D Cross-Country Flight Planning, E National Airspace System, F Performance and Limitations, G Operation of Systems, H Human Factors, I Water and Seaplane Characteristics/Seaplane Bases/Maritime Rules/Aids to Marine Navigation (ASES, AMES)
• •II. Preflight Procedures — A Preflight Assessment, B Flight Deck Management, C Engine Starting, D Taxiing (ASEL, AMEL), E Taxiing and Sailing (ASES, AMES), F Before Takeoff Check
• •III. Airport and Seaplane Base Operations — A Communications, Light Signals, and Runway Lighting Systems; B Traffic Patterns
• •IV. Takeoffs, Landings, and Go-Arounds — Tasks A through N (normal, soft-field, short-field, confined area, glassy water, rough water, forward slip, go-around/rejected landing)
• •V. Performance Maneuvers and Ground Reference Maneuvers — A Steep Turns, B Ground Reference Maneuvers
• •VI. Navigation — A Pilotage and Dead Reckoning, B Navigation Systems and Radar Services, C Diversion, D Lost Procedures
• •VII. Slow Flight and Stalls — A Maneuvering During Slow Flight, B Power-Off Stalls, C Power-On Stalls, D Spin Awareness
• •VIII. Basic Instrument Maneuvers — A Straight-and-Level, B Constant Airspeed Climbs, C Constant Airspeed Descents, D Turns to Headings, E Recovery from Unusual Flight Attitudes, F Radio Communications/Navigation Systems/Radar Services
• •IX. Emergency Operations — A Emergency Descent, B Emergency Approach and Landing, C Systems and Equipment Malfunctions, D Emergency Equipment and Survival Gear, E-G multiengine engine-failure tasks
• •X. Multiengine Operations — A Maneuvering with One Engine Inoperative, B VMC Demonstration, C One Engine Inoperative by Reference to Instruments, D Instrument Approach and Landing with an Inoperative Engine
• •XI. Night Operations — A Night Operations
• •XII. Postflight Procedures — A After Landing, Parking, and Securing (ASEL, AMEL); B Seaplane Post-Landing Procedures (ASES, AMES)
• •Element structure inside each Task: References; Objective; Knowledge elements (K); Risk Management elements (R); Skills elements (S). Example verbatim from Task I.A: "PA.I.A.K1 Certification requirements, recent flight experience, and recordkeeping." / "PA.I.A.K3 Medical certificates: class, expiration, privileges, temporary disqualifications." Sub-elements use a letter suffix (PA.I.B.K1a, PA.I.B.K1b, ...).
• •ACS code scheme, verbatim from FAA-S-ACS-6C Appendix 1: "The elements within each Task in this ACS are coded according to a scheme that includes four components. For example, PA.I.C.K2: PA = Applicable ACS; I = Area of Operation; C = Task; K2 = Task element (in this example, Knowledge 2)."
• •ACS codes on the test report, verbatim: "The Airman Knowledge Test Report (AKTR) lists ACS codes that correlate to a specific Task element for a given Area of Operation for any incorrect responses on the knowledge test."
• •Practical-test sampling rule, verbatim: "There is no requirement for an evaluator to test every knowledge and risk management element in a Task; rather the evaluator has discretion to sample as needed to ensure the applicant's mastery of that Task. The required minimum elements to be tested from each applicable Task include: any elements in which the applicant was shown to be deficient on the knowledge test, as applicable; at least one knowledge element; at least one risk management element; and all skill elements unless otherwise noted."
• •PAR is highlighted (blue) in the Testing Matrix, meaning the PAR AKTR prints ACS codes, not legacy Learning Statement Codes. Per the Matrix: "ACS Codes are displayed ONLY on AKTRs for knowledge tests taken after the effective date of the corresponding ACS document."
• •FAA sample PAR questions carry their ACS code as metadata (e.g. "Metadata: ACSCode : PA.I.B.K1b").

Per-subject Question Counts And Distribution

• •The FAA itself does NOT publish per-subject question counts or ranges for PAR. The FAA Airman Knowledge Testing Matrix gives only the total (60), age, time and passing score. FAA-S-ACS-6C gives no item counts per Area of Operation. The Airman Knowledge Testing Supplement (FAA-CT-8080-2H) contains only figures and legends, no blueprint. The FAA Testing Standards FAQ (updated 6/1/26) states the FAA does not release live test questions and that "the sequence and wording of the questions will vary with each test."
• •The one published percentage blueprint comes from PSI, the FAA's contracted testing vendor, in the "Private Pilot Airplane Applicant Information Bulletin" (March 2024), under "PRIVATE PILOT AIRPLANE TEST SPECIFICATIONS". Percentages of items by content area / corresponding ACS Area of Operation:
• •Preflight Preparation (PA.I): 22%
• •Preflight Procedures (PA.II): 13%
• •Airport and Seaplane Base Operations (PA.III): 7%
• •Takeoffs, Landings, and Go-Arounds (PA.IV): 20%
• •Performance and Ground Reference Maneuvers (PA.V): 3%
• •Navigation (PA.VI): 8%
• •Slow Flight and Stalls (PA.VII): 8%
• •Basic Instrument Maneuvers (PA.VIII): 7%
• •Emergency Operations (PA.IX): 7%
• •Night Operations (PA.XI): 3%
• •Postflight Procedures (PA.XII): 2%
• •Percentages total 100%. PA.X (Multiengine Operations) is not sampled on PAR.
• •Approximate scored-item counts at 60 questions (derived, not published): PA.I ~13, PA.II ~8, PA.III ~4, PA.IV ~12, PA.V ~2, PA.VI ~5, PA.VII ~5, PA.VIII ~4, PA.IX ~4, PA.XI ~2, PA.XII ~1.
• •Basis, verbatim from the PSI bulletin: "The percentage of items allocated to each content area on the PAR examination was determined by the industry-wide job task analysis study completed in 2020."
• •Validation-question statement, verbatim from the FAA Testing Matrix: "Validation questions are NOT scored, and do NOT count for or against the applicant's final test score. The listed 'NUMBER OF QUESTIONS' does NOT include validation questions. The listed 'ALLOTTED TIME' includes the time required to respond to validation questions."

Eligibility And Prerequisites To Take The Test

• •Minimum age to sit the PAR knowledge test: 15 (FAA Airman Knowledge Testing Matrix). Note this is lower than the 17-year minimum for the certificate itself (14 CFR 61.103(a)).
• •14 CFR 61.35(a) requires: an instructor endorsement where required; proper identification containing photograph, signature, date of birth, and (if the mailing address is a PO box) a current residential address.
• •Acceptable authorization for PAR, verbatim from the Testing Matrix: "Certificate of graduation issued by an FAA certificated pilot school. (14 CFR § 61.71(a))" or "Written statement or logbook endorsement from an authorized ground or flight instructor certifying that the applicant completed an applicable ground training or home study course and is prepared for the knowledge test. (14 CFR § 61.35, 61.96(b)(3) or 61.103(d)(2))"
• •Identification (Testing Matrix): ID must be valid and current and must include photo, date of birth, signature, and physical residential address. U.S. citizens and resident aliens: an ID card issued by any U.S. state, territory or government entity (driver permit/license, government ID, military ID), OR a passport, OR an alien residency card. Non-U.S. citizens: a passport AND a U.S. state/territory driver permit or license, OR an ID card issued by any government entity.
• •The information may be presented in more than one form. If no acceptable ID shows the residential address, the applicant may use a parent's physical/residential address or present one of the listed Acceptable Forms of Applicant Address Verification (utility statement, mortgage statement, signed lease, property deed/tax bill, insurance statement, vehicle title/registration, voter registration card, school letter, DD Form 93, DD Form 2058, Form DS-2019, signed FAA forms, etc.). PO boxes, rural routes, flight school addresses (unless the applicant lives there), and business addresses are not acceptable.
• •Applicants under 18 without acceptable ID: a parent or legal guardian must accompany the applicant and, after presenting their own ID, may attest to the applicant's identity.
• •Age proof: state or federal government-issued photo identification.
• •FAA Tracking Number (FTN): applicants without one should create an IACRA profile and obtain an FTN BEFORE testing; the FTN is printed on the AKTR.
• •No medical certificate is required to take the knowledge test.
• •Registration process (FAA-G-ACS-2, Section 1): Step 1 obtain an FTN via IACRA; Step 2 create an account with PSI (faa.psiexams.com); Step 3 select test and testing center; Step 4 select an available time slot; Step 5 pay for the test; automated PSI email confirmation follows. Special accommodations (ADA) are requested through the same PSI registration flow.
• •Cost: $175.00 per test voucher, plus applicable tax (PSI, FAA Testing Programs page). PSI collects payment at scheduling; the FAA does not publish the fee itself.
• •Cancellation: PSI requires cancellation/reschedule notice at least 24 hours before the appointment; a no-show, late arrival, or failure to present ID/authorization can forfeit the registration fee.
• •Validity of a passing result: 24 calendar months. 14 CFR 61.39(a)(1)(i) requires the applicant to "Pass the required knowledge test: Within the 24-calendar-month period preceding the month the applicant completes the practical test." The applicant must also "Present the knowledge test report at the time of application for the practical test" (61.39(a)(2)).
• •Retesting after failure (Testing Matrix): requires submitting the failed AKTR (valid or expired) plus an endorsement from an authorized instructor who gave additional training and determined the applicant proficient to pass — signed statement, logbook notation, or the Authorized Instructor's Statement on the failed AKTR (14 CFR 61.49(a)(2)). The proctor scans and then destroys the failed AKTR. No fixed waiting period applies to PAR when the endorsement is presented.
• •Duplicate AKTR: tests taken on or after January 13, 2020 can be reprinted from the PSI website; for tests on or before January 10, 2020, request a replacement from the FAA (14 CFR 61.29 process).

Reference Material Supplied At The Test And Allowed Aids

• •Supplied by the test center: FAA-CT-8080-2H, "Airman Knowledge Testing Supplement for Sport Pilot, Recreational Pilot, Remote Pilot, and Private Pilot" (2018) — the current revision, named in the FAA Testing Matrix (Oct 22, 2025) heading for the Recreational & Private Pilot page and in the FAA supplements table (publication date 2018, posted June 11, 2018). It supersedes FAA-CT-8080-2G (2016).
• •FAA-CT-8080-2H contents: Appendix 1 contains 19 Legends — Legend 1 Sectional Aeronautical Chart (scale 1:500,000) and Legends 2-19 Chart Supplement legends. Appendix 2 contains numbered Figures (numbering runs to Figure 82, with some numbers unused), including: lift vector; load factor chart; altimeter; airspeed indicator; turn coordinator; heading indicator; attitude indicator; density altitude chart; control position for taxi; METAR; telephone weather briefing; PIREP; TAF; winds and temperatures aloft forecast; weather depiction chart; low-level significant weather prognostic charts; numerous sectional chart excerpts; time conversion table; VOR; Chart Supplement excerpts; airplane weight and balance tables and graphs; airplane power setting table; crosswind component graph; airplane landing distance graph and table; airplane takeoff distance graph; VASI illustrations; airport diagrams; wind sock/landing indicator; flight plan form; compass card; rectangular course and S-turn diagrams; airport markings; U.S. airport signs; wind triangle; velocity vs. G-loads; plus rotorcraft, glider and balloon figures for the other test codes covered by the same supplement.
• •Test center also supplies (PSI bulletin): the required supplement book, an accountable number of blank sheets of scratch paper, and a writing instrument. The test center is allowed but not required to supply basic calculators, basic flight computers, transparent plastic overlays and dry erase markers. PSI's testing software has a built-in four-function calculator.
• •Applicants MAY bring and use: scales, straightedges, protractors, plotters, navigation computers (E6B and similar), blank log sheets, holding pattern entry aids, a standard non-electronic handheld magnifying glass, and electronic or mechanical calculators directly related to the test. Manufacturer's permanently inscribed instructions on such aids (formulas, conversions, regulations, signals, weather data, holding pattern diagrams, frequencies, weight and balance formulas, ATC procedures) are permitted.
• •Applicants may NOT bring their own writing implements. Calculators must have erasable memory: before and after the test, in the proctor's presence, the applicant must actuate the ON/OFF or RESET function to erase memory. Calculators with permanent or continuous memory without erasure capability are prohibited, and the proctor may refuse any calculator whose erasure capability cannot be determined. Magnetic cards/tapes, modules, computer chips or any device holding pre-written programs or test-related information are prohibited. Any booklet or manual explaining how to use a test aid is prohibited. Dictionaries are prohibited. Printouts of data must be surrendered at the end of the test. The proctor makes the final determination on aids and materials.
• •Also prohibited in the exam room (PSI): watches and other timekeeping devices (timers are on-screen and at the site), cell/smart phones, PDAs, recording devices, cameras, pagers, purses, notebooks, notebook computers, reference or reading material, music players, radios, electronic games, personal calculators (unless allowed as above), briefcases, backpacks, wallets, pens/pencils, food and drink, good-luck items, hats/caps/visors (religious apparel excepted), coats, shawls, hooded clothing, heavy jackets, overcoats, and shirts with pockets.
• •Governing FAA guidance: AC 60-11C, "Test Aids and Materials That May Be Used by Airman Knowledge Testing Applicants" (4/26/99, now cancelled but still linked from the FAA Airman Testing page) and FAA Order 8080.6H, Conduct of Airman Knowledge Tests.
• •Arrival: PSI recommends arriving at least 15 minutes before the appointment.

Pass Rates And Test Statistics Published By The FAA

• •The FAA publishes annual Airman Knowledge Test volume, pass rate and average score by test name on its Airmen Knowledge Test Statistics page.
• •CY2025, Private Pilot Airplane: volume 44,657; pass rate 89.56%; average score 81.64%.
• •CY2025, Private Pilot Airplane/Recreational Pilot - Transition (PAT): volume 34; pass rate 70.59%; average score 77.55%.
• •For comparison in the same CY2025 report: Instrument Rating Airplane 27,143 / 94.38% / 86.15%; Commercial Pilot Airplane 20,530 / 99.17% / 91.25%.
• •The FAA also publishes a quarterly "Frequently Missed Knowledge Test Airman Certification Standard (ACS) Codes" report. 2nd Quarter CY25 (July 1, 2024 through June 30, 2025): the most-missed PAR code was PA.IX.A.K3 (Emergency Operations — Emergency Descent), missed 73.33% of the time.
• •The FAA does not publish pass rates broken down by subject area.
• OFFICIAL PREP RESOURCES — CURRENT EDITIONS
• •FAA-H-8083-25C, Pilot's Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, 2023; an Addendum was added October 2025. Full PDF: https://www.faa.gov/regulations_policies/handbooks_manuals/aviation/faa-h-8083-25c.pdf ; landing page: https://www.faa.gov/regulations_policies/handbooks_manuals/aviation/phak
• •FAA-H-8083-3C, Airplane Flying Handbook, 2021; Addendum October 2025. Full PDF: https://www.faa.gov/sites/faa.gov/files/regulations_policies/handbooks_manuals/aviation/airplane_handbook/00_afh_full.pdf ; landing page: https://www.faa.gov/regulations_policies/handbooks_manuals/aviation/airplane_handbook
• •FAA-H-8083-15B, Instrument Flying Handbook, 2012, with Errata Sheet (12/21/2012, updated 10/10/2014), Addendum (4/10/2015) and Addendum B (11/5/2019). PDF: https://www.faa.gov/sites/faa.gov/files/regulations_policies/handbooks_manuals/aviation/FAA-H-8083-15B.pdf
• •AC 00-6, Aviation Weather: CANCELLED. The FAA AC page for AC 00-6B shows status "Cancelled" with the note "Canceled per memo: All ACs dealing with weather have been consolidated into a new handbook in order to streamline access to the FAA's weather documentation for users of the National Airspace System (NAS)."
• •AC 00-45, Aviation Weather Services: likewise consolidated into the Aviation Weather Handbook. Do not study from either AC.
• •Replacement: FAA-H-8083-28B, Aviation Weather Handbook, listed by the FAA with date 04/02/2026 (page last updated April 13, 2026). PDF: https://www.faa.gov/sites/faa.gov/files/FAA-H-8083-28B.pdf
• •Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM): current online edition effective 7/9/2026, Change 3. https://www.faa.gov/air_traffic/publications/atpubs/aim_html/
• •Chart Supplement: issued by the FAA every 56 days in three series — Chart Supplement U.S. (7 volumes), Chart Supplement Alaska, Chart Supplement Pacific; digital PDFs at https://www.faa.gov/air_traffic/flight_info/aeronav/digital_products/dafd/
• •FAA-H-8083-2A, Risk Management Handbook, 2022 — referenced in nearly every PAR ACS Task.
• •FAA-G-ACS-2, ACS Companion Guide for Pilots (November 2023, with Changes 1 & 2, December 2024): https://www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/acs/acs_companion_guide_pilots.pdf
• •FAA PAR sample questions (8/10/2021), each tagged with its ACS code: https://www.faa.gov/sites/faa.gov/files/training_testing/testing/test_questions/par_questions.pdf
• •Free PSI sample test: faa.psiexams.com, "Exam Resources" tab, Recreational & Private Pilot category, Private Pilot Airplane (PAR).
• •Typical ACS Task reference set for PAR, verbatim example (Task I.A): "References: 14 CFR parts 61, 68, 91; AC 68-1; FAA-H-8083-2, FAA-H-8083-3, FAA-H-8083-25".

From Knowledge Test To Private Pilot Certificate

• •14 CFR 61.103, eligibility for a private pilot certificate: (a) be at least 17 years of age for a rating in other than a glider or balloon; (b) 16 for glider or balloon; (c) be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language; (d) receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who conducted the training or reviewed the home study on the 61.105(b) knowledge areas and certified preparedness for the knowledge test; (e) pass the required knowledge test on the 61.105(b) areas; (f) receive flight training and a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who conducted training in the 61.107(b) areas of operation and certified preparedness for the practical test; (g) meet the aeronautical experience requirements before applying for the practical test; (h) pass a practical test on the 61.107(b) areas of operation; (i) comply with the appropriate sections of part 61 for the category and class sought; (j) hold a U.S. student pilot certificate, sport pilot certificate, or recreational pilot certificate.
• •14 CFR 61.39(a) prerequisites for the practical test: pass the knowledge test within the 24-calendar-month period preceding the month of the practical test; present the AKTR at application; have completed the required training and aeronautical experience; hold at least a third-class medical certificate if one is required; meet the age requirement; hold an instructor endorsement certifying training received and logged within the 2 calendar months preceding the month of application, preparedness for the practical test, and "demonstrated satisfactory knowledge of the subject areas in which the applicant was deficient on the airman knowledge test"; and have a completed and signed application form.
• •61.39(g)-(h): if the practical test is not completed in one day, all remaining increments must be completed within 2 calendar months after the month the test began, otherwise the entire practical test must be retaken.
• •14 CFR 61.109(a), aeronautical experience for airplane single-engine: at least 40 hours of flight time, including at least 20 hours of flight training from an authorized instructor and 10 hours of solo flight training in the 61.107(b)(1) areas of operation, and including at least:
• •3 hours of cross-country flight training in a single-engine airplane;
• •3 hours of night flight training in a single-engine airplane (except as provided in 61.110), including one cross-country flight of over 100 nautical miles total distance and 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop, each involving a flight in the traffic pattern, at an airport;
• •3 hours of flight training in a single-engine airplane on control and maneuvering solely by reference to instruments (straight and level, constant airspeed climbs and descents, turns to a heading, recovery from unusual attitudes, radio communications, navigation systems/facilities and radar services);
• •3 hours of flight training with an authorized instructor in a single-engine airplane in preparation for the practical test, performed within the preceding 2 calendar months from the month of the test;
• •10 hours of solo flight time in a single-engine airplane, consisting of at least 5 hours of solo cross-country time; one solo cross-country flight of 150 nautical miles total distance with full-stop landings at three points and one segment of more than 50 nautical miles straight-line between takeoff and landing locations; and three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop, each involving a flight in the traffic pattern, at an airport with an operating control tower.
• •61.109(b), airplane multiengine: the same 40/20/10 structure and the same cross-country, night, instrument, and test-preparation requirements flown in a multiengine airplane, with the 10 hours of solo flown in an airplane.
• •Practical test: conducted against FAA-S-ACS-6C, which is incorporated by reference into part 61. The evaluator reviews the AKTR during the oral portion and must test any elements the applicant missed on the knowledge test, plus at least one knowledge element, at least one risk management element, and all skill elements in each applicable Task.
• •61.107(b)(1) areas of operation for the single-engine airplane rating, verbatim: (i) Preflight preparation; (ii) Preflight procedures; (iii) Airport and seaplane base operations; (iv) Takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (v) Performance maneuvers; (vi) Ground reference maneuvers; (vii) Navigation; (viii) Slow flight and stalls; (ix) Basic instrument maneuvers; (x) Emergency operations; (xi) Night operations, except as provided in § 61.110 of this part; and (xii) Postflight procedures.

Key Numbers At A Glance

• •60 scored questions + 5 unscored validation questions
• •120 minutes (2.0 hours)
• •70 minimum passing score
• •3 answer choices per question
• •Minimum age 15 to test, 17 for the certificate
• •Result valid 24 calendar months
• •$175.00 per test voucher plus tax
• •CY2025 PAR pass rate 89.56%, average score 81.64%, volume 44,657
• •40 hours minimum flight time for the airplane single-engine private certificate

References used in this site

223 sources cited across the question bank.